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How many questions: 1-15 (Last updated ISC2 CISSP exam practice questions)
What a difference: Unlike other online questions that only provide answers, test takers often don’t understand. Here is the question analysis, with links (sections) to the exam questions’ core to help you understand the questions.
Associated with: ISC Certification

Question 1:

The key benefits of a signed and encrypted e-mail include

A. confidentiality, authentication, and authorization.

B. confidentiality, non-repudiation, and authentication.

C. non-repudiation, authorization, and authentication.

D. non-repudiation, confidentiality, and authorization.

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why:

Confidentiality: Encryption ensures that only authorized recipients can read the email content, maintaining confidentiality.
Non-repudiation: The sender cannot deny sending the email due to the digital signature, providing non-repudiation.
Authentication: Digital signatures verify the sender’s identity, ensuring authentication.

Question 2:

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect against structured Query Language (SQL) injection?

A. Restrict the use of the SELECT command.

B. Restrict stored procedures.

C. Enforce boundary checking.

D. Restrict Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML) source code access.

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why:

Certainly! Let’s evaluate the options for protecting against Structured Query Language (SQL) injection:

  1. A. Restrict use of SELECT command: Restricting the SELECT command alone won’t effectively prevent SQL injection. SELECT queries are just one aspect of SQL injection vulnerabilities, and attackers can exploit other commands as well.
  2. B. Restrict stored procedures: While stored procedures can help encapsulate SQL logic and reduce the risk of SQL injection, they are not the best way to prevent it. Stored procedures can still be vulnerable if not implemented securely.
  3. C. Enforce boundary checking: Boundary checking is essential for input validation, but it primarily addresses other security concerns (such as buffer overflows). It doesn’t directly protect against SQL injection.
  4. D. Restrict Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML) source code access: This option is unrelated to SQL injection prevention. HTML source code access pertains to web page rendering, not database security.

The BEST approach to protect against SQL injection involves the following practices:

Filter database inputs: Detect and filter out malicious code from user inputs.
Restrict database code: Prevent unintended database queries and exploration by limiting database procedures and code.
Restrict database access: Prevent unauthorized data access, exfiltration, or deletion through access control restrictions.
Maintain applications and databases: Keep databases fully patched and updated. Upgrade when possible.
Monitor application and database inputs and communications: Monitor communication to detect and block malicious SQL injection attempts.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Restrict stored procedures. While it’s not the only measure, it contributes to a more secure environment against SQL injection attacks.

Question 3:

What security management control is MOST often broken by collusion?

A. Job rotation

B. Separation of duties

C. Least privilege model

D. Increased monitoring

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why:

Certainly! Let’s evaluate the options for protecting against Structured Query Language (SQL) injection:

  1. A. Restrict use of SELECT command: Restricting the SELECT command alone won’t effectively prevent SQL injection. SELECT queries are just one aspect of SQL injection vulnerabilities, and attackers can exploit other commands as well.
  2. B. Restrict stored procedures: While stored procedures can help encapsulate SQL logic and reduce the risk of SQL injection, they are not the best way to prevent it. Stored procedures can still be vulnerable if not implemented securely.
  3. C. Enforce boundary checking: Boundary checking is essential for input validation, but it primarily addresses other security concerns (such as buffer overflows). It doesn’t directly protect against SQL injection.
  4. D. Restrict Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML) source code access: This option is unrelated to SQL injection prevention. HTML source code access pertains to web page rendering, not database security.

The BEST approach to protect against SQL injection involves the following practices:

  • Filter database inputs: Detect and filter out malicious code from user inputs.
  • Restrict database code: Prevent unintended database queries and exploration by limiting database procedures and code.
  • Restrict database access: Prevent unauthorized data access, exfiltration, or deletion through access control restrictions.
  • Maintain applications and databases: Keep databases fully patched and updated. Upgrade when possible.
  • Monitor application and database inputs and communications: Monitor communication to detect and block malicious SQL injection attempts.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Restrict stored procedures. While it’s not the only measure, it contributes to a more secure environment against SQL injection attacks. 

Question 4:

Which of the following is a peer entity authentication method for Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)?

A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

B. Message Authentication Code (MAC)

C. Transport Layer Security (TLS) handshake protocol

D. Challenge-response authentication mechanism

Correct Answer: A

Here’s why:

Let’s explore the options for peer entity authentication methods in the context of Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP):

  1. A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP): CHAP is indeed a peer entity authentication method used in PPP. It ensures that both endpoints (client and server) mutually authenticate each other during the connection establishment. CHAP involves a challenge-response mechanism where the server sends a challenge to the client, and the client responds with a hashed value based on the challenge and a secret key. If the server verifies the response, authentication is successful12.
  2. B. Message Authentication Code (MAC): While MACs are essential for data integrity and authenticity, they are not specifically used for peer entity authentication in PPP. MACs verify the integrity of transmitted data but do not authenticate the endpoints.
  3. C. Transport Layer Security (TLS) handshake protocol: TLS is a higher-layer protocol used for secure communication over networks. It operates above PPP and provides encryption, authentication, and integrity. However, it is not a direct part of PPP’s peer entity authentication.
  4. D. Challenge-response authentication mechanism: This option is quite generic and does not specifically refer to any well-known authentication method. Without further context, it cannot be considered the best choice for PPP authentication.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), as it is designed explicitly for peer entity authentication within PPP connections. 

Question 5:

Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) was designed to specifically address what issue?

A. A common design flaw in telephone modems

B. Speed and reliability issues between dial-up users and Internet Service Providers (ISP)

C. Compatibility issues with personal computers and web browsers

D. The security of dial-up connections to remote networks

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why:

The PPP is a data link layer protocol used to establish a direct connection between two nodes. It operates over various physical networks, including serial cables, phone lines, trunk lines, cellular telephones, specialized radio links, and fiber optic links12. Here are the options analyzed:

  1. A. A common design flaw in telephone modems: PPP was not specifically designed to address design flaws in telephone modems. While it can work over dial-up connections, this option does not align with its primary purpose.
  2. B. Speed and reliability issues between dial-up users and Internet Service Providers (ISP): This option is closer to the mark. PPP indeed addresses connectivity and reliability issues between dial-up users and ISPs. It ensures reliable data linkage between directly connected computers, making it suitable for dial-up connections32.
  3. C. Compatibility issues with personal computers and web browsers: PPP is not primarily concerned with compatibility between personal computers and web browsers. Its focus lies in establishing point-to-point connections.
  4. D. The security of dial-up connections to remote networks: While PPP provides some security features (such as authentication), its primary goal is not solely the security of dial-up connections. It aims to facilitate direct communication between nodes.

Therefore, the BEST answer is B. Speed and reliability issues between dial-up users and ISPs. PPP was designed to enhance connectivity and reliability for dial-up connections, ensuring efficient data exchange. 

Question 6:

A security practitioner needs to implement a solution to verify endpoint security protections and operating system (0S) versions. Which of the following is the BEST solution to implement?

A. An intrusion prevention system (IPS)

B. An intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C. Network Access Control (NAC)

D. A firewall

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why:

Let’s consider the options for verifying endpoint security protections and operating system (OS) versions:

  1. A. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS): While an IPS is valuable for detecting and preventing network-based attacks, it primarily focuses on network traffic. It does not directly verify endpoint security protections or OS versions.
  2. B. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS): This option is a duplicate of the previous one. Let’s explore other choices.
  3. C. Network Access Control (NAC): NAC solutions enforce policies to control access to the network based on endpoint health and compliance. They can assess security protections and OS versions before granting network access. However, NAC is not the BEST solution specifically for this purpose.
  4. D. Firewall: Firewalls filter network traffic based on predefined rules. While they play a crucial role in network security, they do not directly verify endpoint security protections or OS versions.

The BEST solution for verifying endpoint security protections and OS versions is an Endpoint Protection Solution. These solutions specifically address endpoint security issues, securing and protecting endpoints against exploits, attacks, and inadvertent data leakage. They often include features like vulnerability assessment, malware detection, and risk assessment12. Some popular options include:

  • Guardz: A cloud-hosted application and data security platform that offers external attack surface scanning, risk assessment, live activity monitoring, and Dark Web scanning.
  • ThreatLocker: A cloud-based service that prevents unauthorized software execution on endpoints.
  • Heimdal Security Endpoint Threat Prevention: A SaaS package that detects and blocks malware on endpoints.
  • ManageEngine Vulnerability Manager Plus: An endpoint security system bundled into unified endpoint management.

Therefore, the BEST choice for this scenario is an Endpoint Protection Solution (Option B). It provides comprehensive security and assessment for endpoints. 

Question 7:

Which of the following is a common risk with fiber optical communications, and what is the associated mitigation measure?

A. Data emanation, deploying Category (CAT) 6 and higher cable wherever feasible

B. Light leakage, deploying shielded cable wherever feasible

C. Cable damage, deploying ring architecture wherever feasible

D. Electronic eavesdropping, deploying end-to-end encryption wherever feasible

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why:

Let’s discuss the common risk associated with fiber optical communications and its mitigation measure:

Common Risk: Light Leakage

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Light leakage, deploying shielded cable wherever feasible. Shielded cables enhance security by preventing light leakage and maintaining data integrity in fiber optic communications. 

Question 8:

A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack was carried out using malware called Mirai to create a large-scale command and control system to launch a botnet. Which of the following devices were the PRIMARY sources used to generate the attack traffic?

A. Internet of Things (IoT) devices

B. Microsoft Windows hosts

C. Web servers running open source operating systems (OS)

D. Mobile devices running Android

Correct Answer: A

Here’s why:

Let’s discuss the Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack carried out using the Mirai malware and its primary sources:

  • Mirai Botnet: The Mirai botnet is a notorious malware that targets Internet of Things (IoT) devices. Unlike traditional botnets composed of compromised computers, Mirai primarily infects IoT devices such as digital cameras, routers, DVR players, and other smart devices.
  • Attack Traffic: In the case of the DDoS attack orchestrated by Mirai, the primary sources generating the attack traffic were these compromised IoT devices. The botnet coordinated these devices to flood a target server with an overwhelming amount of traffic, causing service disruption.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Internet of Things (IoT) devices. These devices formed the backbone of the Mirai botnet, making them the primary sources of attack traffic during the DDoS incident1. 

Question 9:

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect against structured Query language (SQL) injection?

A. Enforce boundary checking.

B. Restrict the use of the SELECT command.

C. Restrict Hyper Text Markup Language (HTNL) source code access.

D. Use stored procedures.

Correct Answer: D

Here’s why:

Structured Query Language (SQL) injection:

  1. A. Enforce boundary checking: While boundary checking is essential for input validation, it primarily addresses other security concerns (such as buffer overflows). It does not directly protect against SQL injection.
  2. B. Restrict the use of the SELECT command: Restricting the SELECT command alone won’t effectively prevent SQL injection. SELECT queries are just one aspect of SQL injection vulnerabilities, and attackers can exploit other commands as well.
  3. C. Restrict Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML) source code access: This option is unrelated to SQL injection prevention. HTML source code access pertains to web page rendering, not database security.
  4. D. Use stored procedures: Stored procedures are indeed a powerful defense against SQL injection. Here’s why:
    • Parameterized Queries: Stored procedures allow you to use parameterized queries, where user inputs are treated as parameters rather than directly embedded in SQL statements. This prevents SQL injection by design.
    • Encapsulation: By encapsulating SQL logic within stored procedures, you reduce the risk of accidental or malicious SQL injection.
    • Access Control: Stored procedures provide fine-grained access control, allowing you to limit what actions users can perform directly on the database.

Therefore, the BEST choice for protecting against SQL injection is D. Use stored procedures. They enhance security and promote good coding practices. 

Question 10:

An attacker can remain indefinitely logged into an exploit to remain on the web service.

A. Alert management

B. Password management

C. Session management

D. Identity management (IM)

Correct Answer: C

Here’s why:

  1. A. Alert management: Alert management focuses on monitoring and responding to security alerts. While it’s essential for overall security, it doesn’t directly address the issue of an attacker maintaining a session.
  2. B. Password Management: Password management deals with secure password policies, password storage, and authentication. However, it doesn’t specifically address the persistence of an attacker’s session.
  3. C. Session management: This is the BEST choice. Session management involves controlling user sessions during their interactions with a web application. Proper session management ensures that sessions expire after a reasonable period of inactivity, preventing attackers from remaining indefinitely logged in.
  4. D. Identity management (IM): Identity management focuses on managing user identities, access control, and authentication. While related to security, it doesn’t directly address session persistence.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Session management. Implementing proper session timeouts and handling session tokens effectively can prevent attackers from maintaining unauthorized access.

Question 11:

Which of the following would be the BEST mitigation practice for man-in-the-middle (MITM) Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) attacks?

A. Use Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)

B. Use Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol

C. Use File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

D. Use Secure Shell (SSH) protocol

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why:

  1. A. Use Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP): MGCP is a signaling protocol used for controlling media gateways in VoIP networks. While it plays a role in VoIP communication, it does not directly address MITM attacks.
  2. B. Use Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol: This is the BEST choice. Here’s why:
    • TLS (Transport Layer Security): TLS provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over networks. When applied to VoIP, it ensures secure communication between endpoints, preventing eavesdropping and MITM attacks.
    • VoIP Vulnerabilities: VoIP traffic can be intercepted and manipulated by attackers. MITM attacks can compromise call integrity, confidentiality, and authentication.
    • TLS in VoIP: By implementing TLS, VoIP endpoints (such as SIP phones) can encrypt their signaling and media traffic. This prevents unauthorized interception and ensures the privacy and security of VoIP communications.
  3. C. Use File Transfer Protocol (FTP): FTP is unrelated to VoIP security. It is used for file transfers, not for securing real-time voice communication.
  4. D. Use Secure Shell (SSH) protocol: SSH is commonly used for secure remote access to servers and network devices. While it enhances security, it is not directly related to VoIP protection.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Use Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol. Implementing TLS for VoIP helps prevent MITM attacks and ensures secure communication. 

Question 12:

What are the PRIMARY responsibilities of security operations for handling and reporting violations and incidents?

A. Monitoring and identifying system failures, documenting incidents for future analysis, and scheduling patches for systems

B. Scheduling patches for systems, notifying the help desk, and alerting key personnel

C. Monitoring and identifying system failures, alerting key personnel, and containing events

D. Documenting incidents for future analysis, notifying end users, and containing events

Correct Answer: D

Here’s why:

The PRIMARY responsibilities of security operations for handling and reporting violations and incidents include:

  • Documenting incidents for future analysis: Properly recording and documenting security incidents is crucial. This documentation helps in understanding the nature of the incident, identifying patterns, and improving security practices.
  • Notifying end users: Promptly informing affected users about security incidents ensures transparency and allows them to take necessary precautions. Communication with end users is essential for maintaining trust and managing expectations.
  • Containing events: Security teams must take immediate action to contain and mitigate the impact of incidents. This involves isolating affected systems, preventing further damage, and minimizing the spread of threats.

Therefore, the BEST answer is D. Documenting incidents for future analysis, notifying end users, and containing events. These practices contribute to effective incident response and overall security management.

Question 13:

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of detecting vulnerabilities in web-based applications early in the secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

A. Web application vulnerability scanning

B. Application fuzzing

C. Code review

D. Penetration testing

Correct Answer: C

Here’s why:

  1. A. Web application vulnerability scanning: Vulnerability scanning tools automatically identify known vulnerabilities in web applications. While they are useful, they are not the MOST effective method for early detection within the SDLC.
  2. B. Application fuzzing: Fuzz testing (or fuzzing) involves injecting invalid, unexpected, or random data into an application to identify vulnerabilities. While it can uncover certain issues, it is not the MOST effective method for early detection.
  3. C. Code review: This is the MOST effective method for early vulnerability detection. Here’s why:
    • Code Review: Manual or automated code reviews involve analyzing the application’s source code line by line. Developers, security experts, or tools review the code for security flaws, design weaknesses, and coding errors.
    • Benefits of Code Review:
      • Early Detection: Code reviews catch vulnerabilities before they make it into production.
      • Holistic Approach: Code reviews cover the entire application, including logic, authentication, input validation, and access controls.
      • Customized: Reviews can focus on specific security concerns relevant to the application.
      • Educational: Developers learn secure coding practices during the review process.
  4. D. Penetration testing: Penetration testing (pen testing) involves simulating attacks against an application to identify vulnerabilities. While valuable, it typically occurs later in the SDLC (during testing or post-development phases).

Therefore, the BEST choice for early vulnerability detection is C. Code review. It ensures thorough scrutiny of the codebase and helps prevent security issues from propagating into production. 

Question 14:

Which of the following is the MOST common method of memory protection?

A. Compartmentalization

B. Segmentation

C. Error correction

D. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) tagging

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why:

The MOST common method of memory protection is B. Segmentation. Here’s why:

  • Segmentation: In memory management, segmentation divides the memory into segments or sections based on logical divisions (such as code, data, stack, etc.). Each segment has its access permissions (read-only, read-write, execute, etc.). Segmentation helps prevent unauthorized access to memory areas and enhances security.

While other options (compartmentalization, error correction, and VLAN tagging) play important roles in different contexts, segmentation is widely used for memory protection.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Segmentation. 

Question 15:

Which of the following is the BEST identity-as-a-service (IDaaS) solution for validating users?

A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAM.)

C. Single Sign-on (SSO)

D. Open Authentication (OAuth)

Correct Answer: A

Here’s why:

  1. A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP):
    • LDAP: LDAP is a protocol used for accessing and managing directory services. It provides a centralized directory for user authentication and authorization.
    • User Validation: LDAP is commonly used for user validation, especially in scenarios where organizations maintain a directory of users (such as Active Directory).
    • Benefits: LDAP offers efficient user lookups, supports hierarchical structures, and integrates well with various applications.
    • Drawbacks: It may not be suitable for all modern cloud-based applications.
    • Overall: LDAP is a solid choice for user validation, especially in on-premises environments.
  2. B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML):
    • SAML: SAML is an XML-based standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties (such as identity providers and service providers).
    • User Validation: SAML is primarily used for single sign-on (SSO) scenarios, where users authenticate once and gain access to multiple applications.
    • Benefits: SAML provides seamless SSO, strong security, and federation capabilities.
    • Drawbacks: It requires proper configuration and trust relationships between identity providers and service providers.
    • Overall: While SAML is excellent for SSO, it’s not specifically focused on user validation.
  3. C. Single Sign-on (SSO):
    • SSO: SSO allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications without re-entering credentials.
    • User Validation: SSO simplifies user validation by centralizing authentication.
    • Benefits: Improved user experience, reduced password fatigue, and better security.
    • Drawbacks: SSO relies on trust relationships and may not cover all use cases.
    • Overall: SSO complements other IDaaS solutions but is not the sole solution for user validation.
  4. D. Open Authentication (OAuth):
    • OAuth: OAuth is an authorization framework that allows third-party applications to access resources on behalf of a user.
    • User Validation: OAuth focuses on authorization (granting access) rather than user validation.
    • Benefits: Enables secure delegation of access, commonly used for APIs and mobile apps.
    • Drawbacks: Not designed for direct user validation.
    • Overall: OAuth is essential for delegated access but doesn’t directly validate users.

Conclusion:

  • For user validation, especially in traditional directory-based environments, LDAP remains a strong choice.
  • SAML and SSO are valuable for seamless access but are not solely focused on user validation.
  • OAuth is more about authorization than direct user validation.

Therefore, the BEST choice for validating users is A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP), especially in scenarios where a directory service is used for user management. 

More ISC Certification exam questions…

What you’re looking for: new CISSP exam Q&A:

What is the hardest part of the CISSP exam?

Here’s the hard part of this exam: It’s a very application-based exam, and you probably know the technical part, but you need to know how to apply it to your business processes. For people with no hands-on experience, this can be difficult.

Best way to prepare for CISSP exams? New CISSP exam dumps? CISSP exam practice?

Yes, you can opt for Pass4itsure to get new CISSP exam dumps. CISSP exam practice.

Do I have to meet the work experience, education, and professional credential requirements to earn a CISSP certification?

Not necessary, if you don’t have these but are still interested in taking the CISSP exam, then you need to put in more effort. It is possible to strive to become an associate member of (ISC)². Employees have passed the exam, but can only be fully certified if they meet the work experience requirements.

New CISSP exam resource collation (with links):

Please note: As of February 12, 2024, CISSP exams will be available in Chinese in Computer-Based Adaptive Test (CAT) format. As of April 15, 2024, the CISSP exam will be based on the updated exam syllabus.

These two big changes mean that you have to keep your resources up to date, which is what we’re organizing our resource collection for

…..

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